400 years of slavery?

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Where do people come up with “400 years of slavery and oppression” when the United States is only 238 years old? British colonial slavery under “Whites” began around 1670 and lawfully ended in 1865. That’s a total of 195 years of slavery.

 
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People come up w/ this because:

Poor math skills
Luv to hyperbolize
Have an agenda & don’t care how ridiculous they look to get there
Don’t know much about just what slavery is
Mistake marriage for slavery (mostly men….marriage is the end of the blow job)
Just thought 400 sounded like a cool number (easier to pull outta their ass than 195?)
Human “one-upsmanship”….each retelling of a story grows a bit (or diminishes…depending)
Hobson’s choice

 
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I think it’s funny that African descendants are the only ones who cry about their ancestors being enslaved. Irish were also slaves during a significant portion of that time period, and yet their time is almost entirely swept under the rug, because nobody’s really racist against Irish or Celts in general any more. That’s not to mention that you can go back into history to the times of the Romans and you’d have pretty much everyone being descended from one slave or another.

 
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Never heard that one before, but I think they got it from the Bible because it sounded cool and just ran with it.

For the sake of discussion, who is ‘people’ and when do they come out with this?

 
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Originally posted by onlineidiot1994:

That’s not to mention that you can go back into history to the times of the Romans and you’d have pretty much everyone being descended from one slave or another.

You can go far further back than that really. Slave ownership was normal for quite a fair few cultures over the millennia.

But Neil’s explanation sounds the most believable. 400 years of slavery being a prediction in the bible, and the tendancy of bible thumpers the world over to confuse the allegory of the book with actual history. Tie that in with the vague knowledge that slavery in the western world has ended (in the mainstream anyway) and you’ll get the assumption that the 400 years of slavery is over.

 
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Originally posted by NeilSenna:

Never heard that one before, but I think they got it from the Bible because it sounded cool and just ran with it.

For the sake of discussion, who is ‘people’ and when do they come out with this?

It was black panthers in particular that got me thinking about this. They seem to use it as a platform for civic unrest, and blaming the “White” man for “Black” woes. Technically, the Spanish and Portuguese were using Africans as slaves for hundreds of years before “White” Colonials.

 
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Damned Patriarchy! Grabs Torch, LETS BURN THE THRONE OF IMPERIALISM!

 
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Originally posted by Aleazor:

Where do people come up with “400 years of slavery and oppression” when the United States is only 238 years old? British colonial slavery under “Whites” began around 1670 and lawfully ended in 1865. That’s a total of 195 years of slavery.

They’re referring to the Africans enslaved in the Caribbean, as well.

The implication is that Africans have a long tradition of being oppressed by a Western narrative that pre-dates America. I think it’s supposed to promote pan-African solidarity or something.

Originally posted by Aleazor:
Originally posted by NeilSenna:

Never heard that one before, but I think they got it from the Bible because it sounded cool and just ran with it.

For the sake of discussion, who is ‘people’ and when do they come out with this?

It was black panthers in particular that got me thinking about this. They seem to use it as a platform for civic unrest, and blaming the “White” man for “Black” woes. Technically, the Spanish and Portuguese were using Africans as slaves for hundreds of years before “White” Colonials.

The idea is that whiteness as a concept can only exist in contrast with non-whiteness, and (unless there’s a significant Indian population) non-whiteness means blackness in colonial America.

Thus, the Spanish and Portuguese were white, because they were Western oppressors, because that’s what being a Western oppressor meant at the time. I do believe this is how you logically derive white privilege, as well. This logic is twisty and doesn’t work if you think about it too much, but as a legitimization of white guilt, it’s a useful thing for social justice warriors to propagate.

source: my african-american studies class

 
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Well not only them, but as well other countries from the Balkan were most likely 400-500 years under the Ottoman Empire.
And Bulgaria was also before that 200 years under the Byzantine Empire.